No; Christ suffered death of His own free will; ' He was offered, because it was His own will ' (Isaias liii. 7).
'I live in the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and delivered Himself for me' (Gal. ii. 20; comp. John x. 17, 18, and xviii. 4-9).
6. Why was it the will of Christ to suffer and die?
In order to satisfy the Divine Justice for our sins, and thereby to redeem and save us (p. 100, q. 91-93),
By His voluntary obedience unto the death of the cross Christ has given full, nay, superabundant satisfaction to the Divine Majesty for the manifold offences given to Him by our disobedience, and thus He has redeemed us from the eternal punishment which we had deserved. Therefore St. Paul says (Rom. V. 19): 'As by the disobedience of one man [Adam], many were made sinners; so also by the obedience of One [Jesus Christ], many shall be made just.' And St. Peter (1 Pet. ii. 22, 24): 'Who did no sin, who His own self bore our sins in His body upon the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live to justice; by whose stripes you were healed.' And Isaias (liii. 4, 5): 'Surely He hath borne our infirmities, and carried our sorrows. But He was wounded for our iniquities, He was bruised for our sins. '
7. For what sins has Christ given satisfaction?
'For the sins of the whole world' (1 John ii. 2) — namely, for original sin and all the other sins of mankind.
8. Why could no one but Christ make full reparation for our sins?
Because the offence given to the infinite Majesty of God demanded a satisfaction of infinite value, which Christ alone was able to give.
'No brother can redeem, nor shall man redeem: he shall not give to God his ransom. Nor the price of the redemption of his soul: and shall labor for ever, and shall still live unto the end' (Ps. xlviii. 8, 9).
9. Why is the satisfaction of Christ of infinite value?
It is of infinite value because a Divine Person made it; for the greater the dignity of the person who satisfies, the greater also is the value and merit of the satisfaction.
